Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 07:29
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Heavily shorted AI stock is rapidly climbing the Fortune 500 - TheStreet
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What toxic behavior has been normalized by society?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.